Same as before, this discussion is centered around a pre-test. Additionally, the post-test and its rationalization is also discussed by Prof. Ferdinand Valdez RN, MAN, MPH of the Royal Pentagon Review Specialists, Inc.
Pre-test Rationalization
A client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of the following are the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells? Select all that apply. (4)
- Colon
- Reproductive Tract
- White Blood Cells
- Liver
- Lymph Nodes
- Lungs
- Bone
- Brain
Rationalization
4, 6, 7, 8
BLBL: brain, liver, bone, lungs are the most common sites for metastasis.
The nurse understands that the following are general adverse effects of antineoplastic drugs. Select all that apply. (4)
- Urinary retention
- Infertility
- Stomatitis
- Bone marrow depression
- Extravasation
- Nausea
Rationalization
2, 3, 4, 6
Antineoplastic drugs kills the cancer cells, along with the fastest reproducing tissue cells in the body. This includes the gametes, gastrointestinal tract, epidermis, hair follicles, and bone marrow.
The nurse in a hypertensive clinic is caring for a woman who has just been diagnosed as having primary hypertension. She asks the nurse what causes primary hypertension. The nurse’s best response is:
- Unknown
- Atherosclerosis
- Renal Disease
- Diabetic Vascular Changes
Rationalization
The cause of primary hypertension is unknown, also known as “essential hypertension”. Secondary hypertension is caused by comorbidities, such as options 2, 3, and 4.
The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client who has been diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. Which of the following drugs should the nurse expect to administer as ordered? Select all that apply. (3)
- Ethacrynic Acid
- Diabenase
- Glipzide
- Declomycin
- Diabeta
- Mannitol
Rationalization
2, 3, 5
These are oral hypoglycemic agents. While DI is not related to DM, these agents increase antidiuretic hormone secretion thereby counteracting the disease process of diabetes insipidus.
Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the care plan for a patient who has water intoxication from SIADH?
- Measure urine specific gravity
- Restrict salt in the diet
- Chew gum and hard candy
- Avoid ingestion of water
Rationalization
1
Salt is not restricted as the patient will have hyponatremia. Gum and hard candy have no effect. Water is not restricted. It is limited to only 500 mL per day.
When helping a client with Parkinson’s disease to ambulate, what instruction should the nurse give the client?
- Avoid leaning forward
- Hesitate between steps
- Rest tremors when experienced
- Keep arms close to the center of gravity
Rationalization
1
An individual with Parkinson’s disease will have a stooping gait that predisposes them to falling forward. Advise the individual to avoid leaning forward.
A client with retroperitoneal abscess is receiving gentamycin (Garamycin). Which o the following should the nurse monitor? Select all that apply. (3)
- Hearing
- Urine output
- Hematocrit
- BUN and Creatinine
- Serum Calcium Levels
Rationalization
1, 2, 4
Gentamycin, streptomycin, neomycin, and kanamycin are all examples of aminoglycosides (mn. amiNOglycoside). These are:
- Nephrotoxicity: impaired urine output, BUN, and creatinine; monitor as appropriate.
- Ototoxicity: tinnitus
A client with Alzheimer’s will need assistance in maintaining contact with society for as long as possible. Which therapy may help him achieve this goal?
- Occupational Therapy
- Recreation Therapy
- Psychodrama
- Remotivation Therapy
Rationalization
2
Recreation therapy is a beneficial therapy for geriatric patients to keep in touch with society through recreational activities. These include participative games such as bingo, mahjong.
A client with the following symptoms will receive what type of medications? (a) Demyelination of the spinal cord, (b) Nystagmus, (c) Bowel and bladder dysfunction, (d) Intentional tremors, and (e) Scanning speech
- Neostigmine, Tensilon, Steroids
- Steroids, Baclofen, Immunosuppresive
- Akineton, Benadryl, Cogentin
- Dilantin, Valium, Tegretol
Rationalization
2
Steroids, baclofen, and immunosuppresive agents are used for the disorder of multiple sclerosis (pathognomonic: scanning speech). Neostigmine, tensilon, and steroids are used in myasthenia gravis, akineton, benadryl, and cogentin is used for parkinson’s, and dilantin, valium, and tegretol are anticonvulsants.
The most common electrolyte intestinal lavage solutions used for effective cleansing of the bowel includes all of the following except:
- Glucolyte
- Nulytely
- Golytely
- Colyte
Rationalization
1
Glucolyte is a solution used for electrolyte imbalances rather than as intestinal lavage solutions.
Disorders of the Antidiuretic Hormone
Diabetes Insipidus
Diabetes insipidus involves the hyposecretion of ADH, leading to excessive voiding.
- Predisposing factors: pituitary surgery (hypophysectomy), inflammation, trauma, or tumor involving the pituitary gland.
- Signs and symptoms: polydipsia, producing hypovolemia, hypotension (decreased cardiac output), tachycardia, palpitations, weight loss, weakness and fatigue
- Signs of dehydration (early in adults, thirst; in children, tachycardia): dry mucous membranes, poor skin turgor
- Hemoconcentration; increased viscosity, coagulability
- Complications: hypovolemic shock, renal failure (hypoperfusion)
- Diagnostic Evaluation:
- (a) Urine specific gravity is decreased. This is normally 1.015 to 1.030.
- (b) Serum sodium is high from hemoconcentrational hypernatremia. This is normally 135 to 145 mEq/L.
- (c) Serum osmolality is increased. This is normally 270 to 290 mEq/L.
Management
- Force Fluids: 2,000-3,000 mL/day
- IV infusion of isotonic fluids (NSS, PLR)
- Strictly monitor I&O and Vital Signs
- Pharmacologic Therapy:
- ADH Analogue: Vasopressin (Pitressin) is an oily solution best given deep IM; Desmopressin may be given orally or intranasally via drops.
- Oral Hypoglycemic Agents (Sulfonylureas/Non-sulfonylureas) that increase ADH production: Chlorpropamide (Diabenase), Tolbutamide (Orinase), Olazamide (Tolinase), Glipzide (Glucotrol), Diabeta (Micronase)
Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone
- Predisposing Factors: head injury, bronchogenic cancer, hyperplasia of the pituitary gland.
- Signs and Symptoms: hypervolemia/fluid volume excess, urine retention (oliguria), hypertension, tachycardia, palpitations, jugular vein distention, weight gain, hemodilution, water intoxication— cerebral edema.
- Complications: seizures, increased intracranial pressure, which is normally 0 to 15 mm Hg.
- Diagnostic Evaluation:
- (a) Urine specific gravity increased. This is normally 1.015 to 1.030.
- (b) Serum sodium is low. This is normally 135 to 145 mEq/L.
- (c) Serum osmolality is low. This is normally 270 to 290 mEq/L.
Nursing Management
- Restrict fluids at less than 500 mL per day. Educate the client about the hidden sources of fluids.
- Strictly monitor I&O and vital signs
- Administer Medications:
- Diuretics
- Antimicrobial Agents, such as Declomycin to decrease the levels of ADH.
Diuretics
- Potassium-Wasting Diuretics (BFHM):
- Bumex
- Furosemide (Lasix): oral or IV push. In IV administration, this takes 5 to 10 minutes to take effect, and can last for up to 6 hours (LaSIX)
- Hydrochlorothiazide
- Mannitol: IV bottle given fast-drip to prevent crystallization of precipitate.
- Potassium-Sparing Diuretics (SAT):
- Spironolactone
- Amiloride
- Triamterene
Post-test Rationalization
Which of the following patients are at risk for developing heart failure? Select all that apply. (3)
- A 69-year-old make with history of alcohol abuse and is recovering from myocardial infarction
- A 55-year-old female with a health history of asthma and hypoparathyroidism
- A 30-year-old male with a history of endocarditis and has severe mitral stenosis
- A 45-year-old female with lung cancer stage 2
- A 58-year-old female with uncontrolled hypertension and is being tested for influenza
Rationalization
1, 3, 5
These individuals display history of disease involving the cardiovascular system (myocardial infarction, endocarditis, mitral stenosis, uncontrolled hypertension).
Which of the following are not typical signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure? Select all that apply. (3)
- Jugular venous distention
- Persistent cough
- Weight gain
- Crackles
- Nocturia
- Orthopnea
Rationalization
2, 4, 6
2, 4, and 6 are found in left-sided heart failure.
Select all the correct statements about educating the patient with heart failure: (3)
- It is important patients with heart failure notify their physician if they gain more than 6 pounds in a day or 10 pounds in a week.
- Patients with heart failure should receive an annual influenza vaccine and be up-to-date with the pneumonia vaccine.
- Heart failure patients should limit sodium intake to 2-3 grams per day.
- Heart failure is exacerbated by illness, too much fluid or sodium intake, and arrhythmias.
- Patient with heart failure should limit exercise because of the risks.
Rationalization
2, 3, 4
Exercise is not limited. This aids in collateral circulation.
Which of the following is a late sign of heart failure?
- Shortness of breath
- Orthopnea
- Edema
- Frothy blood-tinged sputum
Rationalization
4
Hemoptysis is a late sign of heart failure.
A patient is taking Digoxin. Prior to administration, you check the patient’s apical pulse and find it to be 61 BPM. Morning lab values showed potassium was at 3.3 mEq/L and serum digoxin levels was at 5 ng/mL. Which of the following is the correct nursing action?
- Hold this dose and administer the second dose at 1800
- Administer the dose as ordered
- Hold the dose and notify the physician of the digoxin level
- Hold this dose until the patient’s potassium level is normal.
Rationalization
3
The toxic level of digoxin is 2 ng/mL. The patient is overdosing. Hold the dose and notify the physician.
In which of the following positions should the nurse place a client with suspected heart failure?
- Semi-Fowler’s
- Right Side Lying
- High-Fowler’s
- Lying on the back with the head lowered
Rationalization
3
The patient is positioned high-Fowler’s.
A client with congestive heart failure has Lanoxin ordered every day. Prior to giving the medication, the nurse assesses that the digoxin level is 1.2 ng/mL and auscultates a one-minute pulse rate of 62. The nurse should:
- Withhold the digoxin
- Withhold the dose and request an order for a potassium level
- Give the digoxin as ordered
- Notify the physician
Rationalization
3
Both the therapeutic level and pulse rate of the patient is normal. The dose may be given as ordered.
The nurse is assessing a 59-year-old male patient with congestive heart failure who was just admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which of the following is not a manifestation of left ventricular failure?
- Difficulty breathing
- Patient experiences sensation of suffication
- Sharp pain on the upper abdomen
- Patient assumes a tripod position
Rationalization
3
Sharp pain on the upper abdomen is found in right-sided heart failure due to hepatosplenomegaly.
Furosemide is administered intravenously to a client with heart failure. How soon after the administration should the nurse begin to see evidence of the drug’s desired effect?
- 30-60 minutes
- 2-4 hours
- 5-10 minutes
- 6-8 hours
Rationalization
3
The intravenous route is the fastest route for administration, and takes affect within 5 to 10 minutes.
A 35-year-old patient with right ventricular failure was assigned to the nurse. Which would be the priority assessment of the nurse?
- Abdominal pain
- Anorexia
- Weight gain
- Fatigue
Rationalization
1
Abdominal pain. Anorexia and weight gain are found in both types of heart failure.
The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old client with left ventricular failure. The nurse should be alerted when the patient experiences:
- Confusion
- Crackles
- Pallor
- Tachycardia
Rationalization
1
Confusion is one of the early signs of cerebral hypoxia in the exacerbation of left-sided heart failure.
The patient is receiving Digoxin to treat congestive heart failure. The nurse should monitor the following laboratory values. Which is the priority?
- Potassium levels
- Magnesium levels
- Creatinine levels
- BUN levels
Rationalization
1
Potassium levels are checked as digoxin can cause hyperkalemia.
The physician’s order says to administer Lasix 40 mg IV twice a day. The patient has the following laboratory values in the morning: sodium of 148 mEq/L, BNP of 900, potassium of 2.0, and BUN of 10. Which of the following is a nursing priority?
- Administer the Lasix as ordered
- Notify the physician of the BNP level
- Assess the patient for edema
- Hold the dose and notify the physician
Rationalization
4
The patient’s potassium level is very low. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, and must be withheld.
A patient taking Digoxin is experiencing severe bradycardia, nausea and vomiting. A laboratory diagnosis shows that their digoxin level is 4 ng/mL. What medication do you anticipate the physician to order for this patient?
- Nalmefene
- Aminophylline
- No medication because this is a normal digoxin level
- Immune Fab
Rationalization
4
Digitalis Immune Fab is the antidote for digoxin toxicity.
The nurse should teach the client that signs of digitalis toxicity include which of the following?
- Skin rash over the chest and back
- Increased appetite
- Visual disturbances such as seeing yellow spots
- Elevated blood pressure
Rationalization
3
Optical alterations (photophobia, visual disturbances) are of the late signs of digitalis toxicity.
In case of hospital evacuation, the nurse will evacuate the patients in which order?
- Bedridden, Ambulatory, Wheelchair Bound
- Ambulatory, Bedbound, Wheelchair Bound
- Wheelchair Bound, Bedridden, Ambulatory
- Ambulatory, Wheelchair Bound, Bedbound
Rationalization
4
Prioritize the people that are able to exit the hospital as fast as possible, to maximize the number of individuals evacuated. Start with those who are able to ambulate, then those in wheelchairs, then those who are bedbound.
The most common cause of aspiration of food in adults is:
- Vegetable
- Bolus of meat
- Softdrinks
- Bread
Rationalization
2
Meat is among the most common causes of aspiration.
How will you distribute 2 total care patients and 9 ambulatory care patients for three registered nurses and two nursing assistants?
- 2 RNs for Total Care, 1 RN and 1 NA for Primary Care, and 1 NA for Ambulatory Care
- 1 RN and 1 NA for Total Care, 1 RN and 1 NA for Primary Care, and 1 RN for Ambulatory Care
- 2 RNs for Total Care, 2 NAs for Primary Care, and 1 RN for Ambulatory Care
- 2 RNs for Total Care, 1 RN and 1 NA for Primary Care, and 1 RN and 1 NA for Ambulatory Care
Rationalization
2
Each unit of the hospital must have an RN present.
The cooked food most likely to remain contaminated by the virus that causes Hepatitis A is:
- Canned Tuna
- Broiled Shrimp
- Baked Haddock
- Steamed Lobster
Rationalization
4
Hepatitis A, an infectious form of Hepatitis (rather than blood-borne), is destroyed in extreme heats. Canned tuna is home to Clostridium botulinum??. Broiled Shrimp and Baked haddock undergo sufficient heat to kill Hepatitis A.
A patient with Parkinson’s disease is experiencing weight loss due to difficulty chewing and swallowing. Which meal option is the best for this patient?
- Scrambed eggs with a side of cottage cheese
- Grilled cheese with apple slices
- Baked chicken with bacon slices
- Tacos with refried beans
Rationalization
1
Apple slices, bacon slices, and tacos are difficult to chew.
The nurse observes the nurse’s aid assisting the patient with Parkinson’s disease during mealtime. Which of the following actions by the aid should the nurse recognize as inappropraite?
- Setting limits on the length of mealtimes
- Placing the patient in an upright position
- Allowing the patient to cut the food
- Filling the coffee cup half full
Rationalization
1
The patient is given as much time as necessary to allow the patient to finish their food. Bradykinesia is one of the symptoms of Parkinson’s, and increases the amount of time necessary to finish meals. Patients can cut their food with their teeth.
When interviewing a client with a tentative diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease, the nurse expects the client to report the onset of symptoms occured:
- Gradually
- Overnight
- Suddenly
- Irregularly
Rationalization
1
The onset of Parkinson’s is gradual and insidious, and is progressive. This occurs over many years.
A client with the diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease asks the nurse, “why do I drool so much?” Which is the nurse’s best response?
- We do not know why this happens.
- There is a paralysis of the throat muscles
- You have a loss involuntary movements
- Muscle rigidity prevents normal swallowing
Rationalization
4
Muscle rigidity prevents normal swallowing. These are not involuntary movements because dopamine, the neurochemical involved in Parkinson’s, is involved in gross voluntary movements.
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes that the client’s sodium level is 150 mEq/L. Which food item does the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- Processed oat cereals
- Low-fat yogurt
- Cauliflower
- Peas
Rationalization
1
Options 2, 3, and 4 are low sodium.
A patient arrives at the ER and is unable to give you a healthy history due to altered mental status. The family reports the patient has gained over 10 lbs. in one week and that it is mainly “water weight”. In addition, they report the patient hasn’t been able to urinate or eat within the past week as well and was recently diagnosed with small cell lung cancer. On assessment, the patient’s HR is 115 and BP is 180/92. Patient sodium is 90 mEq/L. Which of the following conditions do you suspect the patient is most likely presenting with?
- Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone
- Diabetes Insipidus
- Addison’s Disease
- Fluid Volume Deficit
Rationalization
1
Fluid retention is found in SIADH as antidiuretic hormone inhibits the excretion of water through the urinary system.
In the scenario above, what drug do you anticipate the patient will be started on per doctor’s order?
- Desmopressin (DDAVP) IV
- Declomycin
- Diabinese
- Stimate
Rationalization
2
Declomycin decreases ADH production.
Which of the following is the priority nursing implementation for a client with a tumor of the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland that has had a urine output of 3 liters in the last hour with a specific gravity of 1.002?
- Measure and record vital signs each shift
- Turn the client every two horus to prevent skin breakdown
- Administer Pitressin Tannate as ordered
- Maintain a dark and quiet room
Rationalization
3
Vasopressin (Pitressin) is given as an ADH analogue for the patient with deficient ADH.
Which of the following measures would a nurse include in the care plan of a patient who has SIADH?
- Straining all voided urine
- Encouraging blood glucose
- Monitoring blood glucose
- Increasing sodium intake
Rationalization
4
Increasing sodium intake in done to counteract the dilutional hyponatremia produced by SIADH.
The nurse determines that demeclocycline (Declomycin) is effective for a patient with a syndrome of inappropraite antidiuretic hormone based on finding that the patient’s:
- Weight has increased
- Urinary output is increased
- Peripheral edema is decreased
- Urine specific gravity is increased
Rationalization
2
The disease process involves urine retention; the effective patient outcome is the ability to urinate.
The nurse determines that additional instruction is needed for a 60-year-old patient with chronic syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) when the patient says which of the following?
- I need to shop for foods low in sodium and avoid adding salt to food
- I should weigh myself daily and report any sudden weight loss or gain
- I need to limit my fluid intake to no more than 1 quart of liquids a day.
- I will eat foods high in potassium because diuretics cause potassium loss.
Rationalization
1
Sodium is not restricted in patients with SIADH because of dilutional hyponatremia. Conversely, it is increased.